4 Comments

Two words: NIH, Fraud, what else is there!!!

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FFS everything is a shitshow

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Why do you assume that the vaccinated people who were misclassified as unvaccinated would've had a much higher incidence of PASC than the vaccinated people who were properly classified as vaccinated? What different characteristics did the mislabeled vaccinated people have from properly labeled vaccinated people that would explain such a drastic difference?

If 44% of unvaccinated person-weeks were contributed by mislabeled vaccinated people who had the same rate of PASC as properly labeled vaccinated people, the mislabeled vaccinated people would've had a total of only about 1.9 cases of PASC (from .44*397762/10000*.11). So properly labeled unvaccinated people would've still had about 139 cases of PASC (from 397762/10000*3.54-.44*397762/10000*.11).

Another problem with your calculation is that even if 44% of people with unknown status would've been vaccinated at some point, it doesn't mean that 44% of person-weeks under the unvaccinated/unknown label would've been contributed by vaccinated people, since people with known vaccination status would've contributed unvaccinated person-weeks before they got vaccinated (if they got their first dose after the observation period had already started).

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Given that it will take me some time and effort to answer this properly, and I think everyone can benefit from a full discussion even if you are right (which I doubt), can you post a screenshot of this question on Twitter and tag both me and Jeffrey Morris?

I will provide my answer as a Twitter reply.

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